First, I
Googled the age old question...(It's like an 8 Ball!!)
And I found
this site:
Mr.Slick had
this to say...
…Then again, what
if someone masturbates with absolutely no sexual fantasy
of any sort. Is it then sinful? Again, this is
difficult to answer. But, since the Bible doesn't
condemn or condone it, can we make dogmatic assertions?
Furthermore, what if a person masturbates in order to
reduce the sexual urge in an attempt to not commit
fornication? Certainly, actual fornication would be a
sin, and masturbation would be preferable in this
instance. But does this mean that the person is being
mastered by the flesh? If so, then that would be
wrong. But, does it mean then that a self-release of
sexual tension is then acceptable if it is to avoid
fornication? Again, since the Bible does not declare
masturbation a sin, I cannot say it is.
Let's look at
some verses that speak of sexual morality. I will
comment after each one. |
I'm going to skip all the
yammering and cut to the chase...
1 Thess. 4:2-5, "For you know
what commandments we gave you by the authority of the
Lord Jesus. 3 For this is the will of God,
your sanctification; that is, that you abstain from
sexual immorality; 4 that each of you know
how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and
honor, 5 not in lustful passion, like the
Gentiles who do not know God."
Mr. Slick's response:
Again, the word for "sexual immorality" is porneia.
The Greek word for "immorality" is porneia
which means illicit sexual intercourse, i.e.,
fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, bestiality,
etc. The English word "pornography" is derived from
this Greek word.
The reference in verse four to "own
vessel" is to having a wife so that fornication would be
avoided. |
Did you see what he did just then? He referred
to a wife as nothing more than a bowl to jack off into. Boy, the
Missus is going to be pissed! Guess we know what he'll be
doing tonight!!
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